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Danno
01-10-2008, 06:36 PM
If there are no access lists applied at all on a Cisco router (i.e my 3800 - 12.4), does that imply a permit any any? Basically, without access lists does it just route everything? I believe that's the case but I'd just like confirmation.

What I'm getting at is that if I'd like to just block one thing (or a couple things) and make my access list as follows:

access-list 101 deny icmp any any timestamp-request log
access-list 101 permit any any
(then apply it to my outside int.)
ip access-group 101 in

does this allow everything to run as it currently does with no access lists except for that it's now denying icmp timestamp requests?

Thanks for any help!

Planet
01-11-2008, 01:04 AM
the access list is for ipsec including vpn, no access list, no ipsec.Check out the Cisco IOS Security Configuration Guide for more information: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/partner/products/ps6441/products_configuration_guide_book09186a008049e249. html

Danno
01-11-2008, 01:29 PM
There's currently no access-lists at all. I want to apply one like I mentioned above but want to make sure I'm not causing any issues. There's no vpn involved.

I just wanted to know what the default behaviour is when there's no access-list applied to an interface. Thanks.